Did America’s Constitution give the right to vote to all American citizens?
Of course not. No African-Americans, no women, no renters.
Not until 1850 was the vote extended to men who were not property owners.
What was the logic of the founding fathers?
Was the idea that landowners were the big stakeholders, so their vote counted? Is it that landowners were responsible and established? Was landownership the sign of responsibility, maturity?
Or was it only one step away from the nobility system of England that we rebelled against?
We’ve come a long way, baby.
What do you think?
Are homeowners bigger stakeholders?
Did home ownership translate into ruling class membership in 1790? Does it now?
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